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posted by Phalene at 11:01 AM on July 5, 2009This is an extremely difficult question to answer, for many reasons. As paultopia mentioned, the definitions of “imperialism” and “communism” are slippery from the start. Is the EU imperialist any more than modern China is communist? Furthermore, many deaths resulted from wars between communist and imperialist powers:
for example, how would you count deaths in Vietnam during communist resistance to French colonial rule? Moreover, it is not exactly clear what a “bodycount” is. Were poverty related deaths in the US during the Great Depression part of the imperialist bodycount? What about starvation in the Soviet Union due to collectivization is that part of the communist bodycount?
posted by Ptrin at 11:11 AM on July 5, 2009Communism, to use the term loosely, has killed more within its given totalitarian system the destruction of the kulaks, Stalin’s larger holodomir, Mao’s Great Leap Forward, Pol ***’s regime accounting for another 2M or so bringing the Stalinist Maoist side up to around 100M dead people from these two actors alone.
But WW I and II were imperialist wars so there’s 20M dead for the first and around 75M for WW 2. It’s actually rather uncertain who killed more Chinese in the 20th century, Mao or the Imperial Japanese Army, the latter I think we can all agree qualifies as “Imperialist”.
Given the slow grinding of poverty around the periphery where *** Imperialism has had its way, eg. Leopold liquidating 8 15M of his subjects in the Congo Free State, the millions of Indians that perished under British Colonial rule over the decades, not to forget the millions of Native Americans killed under the Spanish imperial system, I’d say the honor goes to the Imperialists.
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